Please help me figure this out...
About 4 wks ago I suspected that my baby (then 5 wks old) was having an adverse reaction to the milk I was drinking. I stopped drinking milk and yogurt and cut down on the other dairy, although not completely. At the time we were also battling oversupply and oald. Since the symptoms I was seeing (fussy during feedings mainly and some bumps on his face), I decided this morning to have a bowl of cereal w/ milk to see the effects:
Today my lo (9.5 weeks old now) was fussy during feedings, increasingly so... The first feeding after I had milk went fine w/ minimal fussiness, then next feeding was shorter w/ a little more fussiness, worsening throughout the day, all the way to this evening when he would suck for a few seconds and then scream and then refuse to eat anymore. I pumped for abt 8 minutes and waited and fed him again before putting him down: He ate for abt 30 minutes on one side and 15 on the other (he normally bfs for abt 8-12 minutes total each time) w/ no fussiness at all. He was not overly upset between feedings though. Sooooo, would you attribute this to the milk I drank for breakfast and deduct that ds has a milk intolerance?
Thanks so much.